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發表於 26-11-2008 18:52:52
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原帖由 bearwing 於 26-11-2008 18:31 發表 
我以純邏輯的角度推論答案:
由於小明和小丙的情況完全一樣
兩者所得與所失 總和必定為0
否則 如果兩人的expected value 都 >0
那誰是輸家?
Your original expected money:
(1/2)(2x) + (1/2)(x) = 1.5x
因 ...
未玩已先expect自己會多左(if 少),or少左錢(if 多),it's gg~
然後再用計出黎既expected - 呢個expected
跟本就係自己減自己,緊係0啦.
the one with more $(2x), can have no gain, or lose half. (-x)
the one with less $(x), can have no gain or gain double. (x)
So the one with more $ have -ve expected return & the one with less $ have +ve expected return, when we consider the 2 participants together.
The expected value of the game = 1/2(x) + (1/2)(-x) = 0.
i think this tell the real situation.
rich guy lose x, poor guy gain x, and vice versa. and both of them have equal probability to be the rich guy or the poor guy.
but why is it different from my previous calculation?
In my previous calculation, the situation is
if i am the one holding x, the other one may be holding 2x, or x/2
such that if i gain, i can gain x , but if i lose, i only lose x/2.
here i only consider the case of one participant only.
To him only, it appears to be gain more than lose.
The same situation to another guy. Both of them can enjoy gain more than lose. So, they will play!
x is a fixed amount. but it appear to the rich one as only his half, but appear to the poor one as his whole.
So they have different perspective to play the game even though the actual transfer of amount is fixed at x.
[ 本帖最後由 [S]【YU】 於 26-11-2008 19:07 編輯 ] |
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